The disposition of Christ Jesus

Sometimes words can suffer from their familiarity. As in this case, everyone ‘knows’ in advance that Paul here speaks of “the pre-existence of Christ, i.e., the existence of Jesus before He became man. But “Bereans” (see: Acts 17: 11) also carefully examine these assumptions in the Scriptures. They are willing to believe anything, provided it is consistent with “it is written”. Let us take a closer look at this passage.

5 For let this disposition be in you, which is in Christ Jesus also, 6 Who, being inherently in the form of God, deems it not pillaging to be equal with God, 7 nevertheless empties Himself, taking the form of a slave, coming to be in the likeness of humanity, 8 and, being found in fashion as a human, He humbles Himself, becoming obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. Philippians 2:5-8 (CLV)

Verse 5

For let this disposition be in you, which is in Christ Jesus also…

Unfortunately, in most Bible version the verb “is” in verse 5 has been translated as “was”, which puts us on the wrong track for a correct understanding of this text and of the entire passage. A tense (time form) is lacking in the original text (see: Young’s Literal Translation and the Concordant Version). Moreover, it is of general importance for the understanding of this passage to note that many of the verbs in these verses are presented in a timeless form (the so-called aorist). Translations often create the impression that a completed fact or action is stated. For example, “thought it not robbery” or “made himself of no reputation.” That is misleading. The aorist points to the fact, in itself, without horizon. Although (as mentioned), Philippians 2:5-8 has the reputation to be dealing with the “pre-existence of Christ, it should be noted that Paul introduces this passage quite differently. He points to the disposition of Christ Jesus, a title and name which expressly belongs to Him, as a man. This is why Paul writes in 1Tim.2:5:

For there is one God, and one Mediator of God and mankind, a Man, Christ Jesus,

Verse 6:

Who, being inherently in the form of God, deems it not pillaging to be equal with God…

Let us first consider the words “equal with God”. The word “equal” (Gr. isa) that Paul uses here, we find in a similar context in John 5:

Therefore, then, the Jews sought the more to kill Him, for He not only annulled the sabbath, but said His own Father also is God, making Himself equal to God. John 5:18

Note: the conclusion (“making Himself equal to God.”) is drawn by John. Jesus had said that God was his Father. He was, indeed, conceived by “the power of the Highest” in Mary (Luke 1:35). As a son resembles his father, so Jesus Christ resembles God. Not, so to speak, but literally, in the same manner. “Equal with God”, in John 5 evidently, applies to Jesus, while He was here on earth. This also applies to the words, “in the form of God”. The word “form” (Gr. morphe) indicates that what is seen. Elsewhere in John’s Gospel, Jesus says:

… He who has seen Me has seen the Father… John 14:9

That signifies that the form of God, was visible in His Son, here on earth.

vers 6 en 7

… deems it not pillaging to be equal with God, nevertheless empties Himself, taking the form of a slave, coming to be in the likeness of humanity.

“God’s form” and “being equal with God”, Jesus Christ did not consider pillaging. As Son of God, these things belong to Him. But instead of holding them as a prey to hang onto, He empties Himself, that is to say, He discounts Himself and takes the form of a slave. Think, for instance, of “the Servant of the LORD” in Isaiah 53, Who, as a lamb, was lead to the slaughter. Or, as we read in Math.10:28, the Son of Man (Heb. Ben haAdam) did not come to be served (to which He was entitled, being the Son), but to serve and give His soul as a ransom for many.

Verse 7 and 8:

… coming to be in the likeness of humanity, and, being found in fashion as a human, He humbles Himself, becoming obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

What do the words “in the likeness of humanity” mean? Literally, it says: “…coming to be in the likeness of humanity”, which is not about becoming a ‘human’ but about becoming equal to humanity. The Hebrew letter says:

Since, then, the little children have participated in blood and flesh, He also was very nigh by partaking of the same, that, through death, He should be discarding him who has the might of death, that is, the Adversary, and should be clearing those whoever, in fear of death, were through their entire life liable to slavery. Heb.2:14,15

Human children have participated in blood and flesh and are doomed to die. Jesus also took part in this, with this huge difference that dying for Him was a choice; not while being pre-existent in heaven, but here, on earth. Listen to his own statement:

Therefore the Father is loving Me, seeing that I am laying down My soul that I may be getting it again. No one is taking it away from Me, but I am laying it down of Myself. John 10:17,18 (CLV)

No one could kill the Son. What is more, not only could no one kill Him, but He, Himself, could make alive, whom He wanted!

For even as the Father is rousing the dead and vivifying, thus the Son also is vivifying whom He will. John 5:21

“… becoming equal to humanity” means: despite the fact that He, on earth, was “the Inaugurator of life” (Acts 3:15), He became, as all humanity, namely, a mortal. “Outwardly, He appeared as a human being”, i.e., in His manner and appearance as others He “became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. “As the writer of the Hebrew letter says:

… even He also, being a Son, learned obedience from that which He suffered. Hebrews 5:8

Christ Jesus versus Adam

Philippians 2 depicts a contrast between Jesus Christ and “the first man”. Adam wanted to be equal to God and stole this by eating the forbidden fruit. Adam elevated himself and thus became disobedient to death. God greatly humbled him. This, in complete contrast to “the man, Christ Jesus”! He is God’s only begotten Son and therefore resembles His Father. But instead of holding onto this as a stolen possession, He took the form of a slave and became obedient unto the death of the cross.

In conclusion

Details about a pre-existence of Christ Jesus, one can decide to read it into Philippians 2:5-8, but nothing in the text, itself, requires this. Would it not also have been strange, if Paul had given to the believers in Philippi such a pre-existence as an example to follow? None of us can emulate a Divine person Who, in heaven, had chosen to become a human being. To become born, is for us no choice. But we can take for an example a man who, despite his unique, exalted status, was willing to accept the deepest humiliation, possible. In summary: Paul, in Philippians 2, is not speaking about the “pre-existence of Christ,” but he presents the disposition of the human being, Christ Jesus, as an example. ——————————— translation: Peter Feddema

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